Friday, July 26, 2013

Why I Am a Theistic Evolutionist;



Why I’m a theistic evolutionist;

One interesting aspect of evangelical theology is just how antagonistic it is towards evolution. Most Christians I know are convinced that not only is Darwinism false but it is utterly wicked. So I decided a while ago to research why this is so and have become convinced that this dogmatic position by evangelicals is unwarranted. While my findings don’t provide an equally dogmatic case for theistic evolution they do show that such an idea is plausible within a Judeo-Christian world-view. It should also be noted at the outset that I’m defining theistic evolution here as the view that evolution and Christian theism are compatible. Thus I will not be arguing that evolution is true as one can still have scientific ground for rejecting the theory without believing that it is inconsistent with Christian theology.

What has first shocked me to begin considering this idea is the number of well-respected conservative Christian scholars, scientists, philosophers and apologists who at least saw no conflict between evolution and Christianity if not accepted evolution altogether. Scholars like N.T. Wright and Bruce Waltke, philosophers like William Lane Craig and Paul Copan, and scientists like Francis Collins and John Polkinghorn. These men are all well-respected and well-known for their work in their respective fields. Even more importantly they all defend ardently doctrines of the Christian faith like the resurrection of Jesus, the trinity, the hypostatic union, the reliability of the Old and New Testaments etc. This is important because it casts doubt on the idea that these scholars and acedemics are using eisegesis in Genesis 1 as they clearly are willing to defend doctrines of the Christian faith that are widely scrutinized by secular scholars. This seems even more implausible when one realizes that philosophers William Lane Craig and J.P. Moreland don’t accept evolution on scientific grounds but are perfectly comfortable with it on theological ones. So the question is, why are these men convinced that evolution is consistent with Genesis?

Well their case centers on the genre of Genesis 1-11. What these scholars question is whether or not Genesis 1 is really proto-science or a strict explanation of where the universe and life on earth came to be in a chronological step-by-step process. I’m framing their arguments in two phases. Phase one includes the exegetical aspects of the debate whereas phase two includes the philosophical and theological objections to theistic evolution.

Phase 1:

The 7 Days of Creation as a literary framework:

Day 1: The separation of light and darkness. 
Day 4: The creation of lights to rule the day and the night.

Day 2: The separation of the waters to form the sky and the sea.
Day 5: The creation of birds and fishes to fill the sky and the sea.

Day 3: The separation of the sea from the dry land. The creation of the plants.
Day 6: The creation of animals and humans to fill the land and eat the plants.

Day 7: the heavens and the earth were finished and God rested.

What’s shown above is an example of parallelism used often used in Hebrew poetry. This is significant because it demonstrates that the author does not want us to focus on the chronology of events but the pattern and content therein. This casts doubt on the idea that Genesis 1 at least, is meant to be a chronological narrative of how God went about creating everything (Alexander, 2008 p. 155).

Objections:

Tim Chaffey from Answers In Genesis (2011) objects to this view in a number of ways. First, he states; “this supposed semi-poetic construction is inconsistent with the fact that Genesis 1 is a historical narrative. Hebrew scholar Steven Boyd has clearly shown that Genesis 1 is written as historical narrative rather than poetry. Hebrew poetry commonly utilizes a high percentage of imperfect and perfect verbs. By contrast, Hebrew narrative is marked by a high frequency of waw-consecutive preterite verbs that indicate a sequence of events in past tense material.”

This is largely irrelevant, scholars widely recognize that there is no reason to enforce absolutes when considering the genre of ancient texts. It is completely consistent to say that a text contains poetic and narrative elements.

“Second, the above chart is inconsistent with the text of Genesis 1:1–2:3. Water was not created on the second day, but the first. Genesis 1:2 states, "The Spirit of God was hovering over the face of the waters." This occurred prior to the creation of light on the first day. So perhaps days 1 and 5 should be viewed as parallel.”

Again this is largely irrelevant. The parallelism is in the separation of the waters, not necessarily their creation, just as light was separated from darkness.

“Third, the order of events is crucial here. The Framework proposes that the days are not chronological, but theological. However, if one rearranges the chronology, then it breaks down into absurdity. The waters of day 1 must exist for them to be separated on day 2. On day 3, the dry land appeared from these waters. The sun, moon, and stars of day 4 were placed in the heavens (expanse, firmament) of day 2. The birds of day 5 flew on the face of the firmament of day 2 and multiplied on the land of day 3. Finally, mankind was made to rule over all of creation (Genesis 1:28). Any attempt to rearrange days of the creation week forces impossibilities into the text.”

Again, how is this relevant? The point of the framework hypothesis is that the process described above is of secondary importance, it serves the purpose of a literary framework, not a literal description of events.



Other Structural elements in the Genesis texts;

Parallel Toledot structure in Genesis;

J.P. Holding (2009)explains this structure in Genesis 1-2 as follows;


·         1:1-2 Introduction
·         2:4-6 Introduction
·         1:3-5 Light/Darkness
·         2:7 Man/Dust
·         1:6-8 Firmament in Heaven
·         2:8 Garden on Earth
·         1:9-13 water and land, plants
·         2:9-15 plants, water and land
·         1:14-19 luminaries separated
·         2:16-17 two trees separated
·         1:20-3 first creation of animal life
·         2:18 first concern for man's companionship
·         1:24-31 creation continues
·         2:19-22 concern continues
·         2:1-3, 2:23-4 internal patterns
               -end of process
               -divine involvement
               -separation of Sabbath/separation of couples from parents
               -blessing of Sabbath/unity of couple

Thus Genesis 2 parallels Genesis 1 in that it is a story of man’s origins/functions in the same way Genesis 1 was a story of creations origins/functions. So again, while there are elements of narrative in the text there are also many elements of poetry as will, which casts doubt on the idea that Genesis should be taken as pure historical narrative much less a modern one.

Symbolism in Genesis;

The pair of three in the days of creation is also highly symbolic. In Hebrew conception, the number three signaled completeness and wholeness.

The importance of this is pointed out by Conrad Hyers (), “Literalism presumes that the numbering of days is to be understood in an arithmetical sense, whether as actual days or as epochs. This is certainly the way in which numbers are used in science, history and mathematics-and in practically all areas of modern life. But the use of numbers in ancient religious texts was often numerological rather than numer-ical. That is, their symbolic value was the basis and purpose for their use, not their secular value as counters.”
The number 7 as well was used commonly in the ancient world to refer to completeness and fullness, this means we cannot assume, prima-facie, that the 7 days of creation simply mean a 7 day period.

Again this demonstrates that the 7 days in Genesis 1 are not meant to be an account of chronological time a framework from which to develop a theological polemic against competing pagan creation myths.

Hebrew thought and time;

The ancient Hebrew people did not view time as we do in the west. While of course they had a sense of chronology of events they did not see a strict chronology of time as important when compared to the importance of the meaning of the events. As such, the ancient Hebrews often changed the sequence of events when describing an event to emphasize a theme or idea present in the events themselves. One clear example of this occurs in the three temptations of Jesus in Matthew and Luke. Matthew has the temptation of Jesus culminate on the mountain whereas Luke has it end in the temple. From a chronological perspective this discrepancy makes no sense, but seen in a thematic pattern we see that throughout Matthew the major events of Jesus life are portrayed as being on mountains or hills. Thus Matthew continues this theme by placing the pinnacle of Jesus temptation on the high mountain (Richards, O’brian, 2011 pp 148-149).

With This in mind Genesis 1 and 2 take on an entirely different perspective. In the six days of creation this is exactly what we see the first 3 days are combined with the theme of separation whereas the second are paired with the theme of filling the newly separated and structured creation. The same pattern of thought is seen in the parallelism between chapters 1 and 2, the two chapters do not seem to be intended to follow a chronological pattern but a logical one, drawing parallels between the creation of man and the world he inhabits.

Genesis 1-2 as a polemic against pagan mythology;

So if the author’s main intention  in Genesis 1-2 wasn’t to provide a historical chronological narrative then what was? Conrad Hyers (1984) writes,
 “The type of narrative form with which Genesis 1 is presented is not natural history but a cosmogony. It is like other ancient cosmogonies in the sense that its basic structure is that of movement from chaos to cosmos. Its logic, therefore, is not geological or biological but cosmological. On the other hand it is radically unlike other ancient cosmogonies in that it is a monotheistic cosmogony; indeed it is using the cosmogonic form to deny and dismiss all polytheistic cosmogonies and their attendant worship of the gods and goddesses of nature. In both form and content, then, Genesis I reveals that its basic purposes are religious and theological, not scientific or historical.”
Particularly in Genesis 1 we find similarities to similar pagan cosmonogies, but similarities that appear intended not to copy but to argue against said pagan cosmogonies.

To take some general contrasts, for instance. In most middle Eastern creation myths such as the Assyrian and Egyptian man is created to serve the gods or as an accident or an afterthought. However, in Genesis the creation of man is the climax of the creative process, man is the only thing created in the image of God. Furthermore it seems clear that Genesis 1-2 rejects polytheism and emphasizes the sovereignty and creative power of God.

The similarities between Genesis and pagan mythologies of the Middle East serve the two points of contention stated above. For example; Genesis 1 carries the standard view of ANE creation myths by describing the divine ordering the chaos and providing structure and order to creation. However, Genesis differs from these views in that the divine does not struggle with chaos but clearly dominates and controls it. Furthermore, the divine is clearly a single being, not a multitude of god’s. Further similarities occur in Genesis 1:2 where the first thing described to exist is the waters, darkness and earth. These were commonly thought to be the three basic problems or dangers of chaos. Thus, as Hyers points out, the first three days center around solving these three problems. Light is created and separated from the darkness, waters are separated by a firmament, and earth is separated from the waters and covered in plants. These three elements or aspects of creation are then given fullness and complete structure and function in days 4-6 with the creation of the luminaries, stars, birds, fish, animals and mankind.

Whats more, the description of the things created makes clear that objects like the sun are not god’s but merely objects created with a function determined by their creator, God. Even the stars are described as merely being signposts for signs and seasons. There is no hint that there function is crucial to creation itself or that they are responsible for man’s creation as in so many other creation myths.

What about Genesis 3-11?

Actually most commentators consider the first section of Genesis to be chapters 1-11 precisely because they cover similar topics, contain similar structure and have similar writing styles and genre’s. And as expected we see many of the same elements described above in this first section of Genesis. In regard to these similarities Gary Smith (1978) states,
“The striking linguistic similarities that the author places in the Adamic and Noahnic stories help to determine the main division of these eleven chapters. As Westermann says, ‘The resemblance between the end of the Flood narrative and the Creation story is self-evident.’ This fundamental break is recognized by von Rad, who concludes that ‘the words of Genesis 8:2 If may actually be called the real conclusion of this history, for at that point the history of mankind begins anew.’ Others have observed that there is something of a new beginning at chap. 9, but few of the major commentaries have made this the major break in the outline of Genesis 1-11.”
Indeed we see a similar sort of parallel structure between Ch. 1 and 8,9 that we saw between Ch. 1 and 2.

(a) Because the earth was covered in water, it was uninhabitable for man, as such land was separated from the waters (1:9-10; 8:1-13).
(b) “birds and animals and every creeping thing that creeps on the earth” are brought forth to “swarm upon the earth” in 1:20-21, 4-25 and 8:17-19.
(c) The days and seasons are established by God in 1:14-18 and 9:2.
(d) God commands the animals to “be fruitful and multiply on the earth” in 1:22 and 8:17.
(e) God tells man to “be fruitful and multiply and fill the earth” in 1:28 and 9:1,7.
(f) God gives man dominion over  animals in 1:28 and 9:2.
(g) God provides food for man in 1:29-30 and 9:3.
(h) Man is spoken of as being made in the image of God in 1:26-27 and 9:6.

The theological structure of Genesis 3-11;

These parallels highlight a major theme in flood account, that of a renewed creation. Indeed Smith notes an important pattern in Genesis 1-11, that of creation, blessing, expansion, and a record of genealogies. Smith divides Genesis 1-11 into two sections; 1-8 and 9-11. In both sections this pattern is there, mankind is blessed and commanded to multiply and fill the earth and then the author records man’s expansion to various lands and the genealogies of the great men who achieved such expansions. The flood then acts as the division between these two sections of Genesis 1-11. Note also the elements of block logic in the text. Again we see the twofold division where there are stories of creation, destruction and recreation, with parallels drawn between.


At the same time there are many similarities between Genesis 3-11 and other ANE mythologies. For instance, the theme of men of old being much greater and living much longer than the people at the time of Moses was a common motif in ANE mythologies. Robert Branson notes, “The early history of humanity was viewed in antiquity as a golden age when humans lived in an idyllic setting, had special relationships with deities, and lived extremely long lives. The biblical account
con-forms to this general pattern.” And yet, unlike its pagan counterparts, the Genesis account portrays man as being purposed for dominion over the Earth and emphasizes the fulfillment of that purpose. Thus it seems that while its possible the author of Genesis really believed that the first humans lived to be upwards of 900 years old its unlikely he held such a belief with any conviction. In other words, the author wouldn’t have cared if our ancestors really didn’t live longer lives so why should we?

The flood account in Genesis 8-9 is also similar in many ways to other ANE flood mythologies, in particular the Gilgamish Epic and Atrahasis Epic. And again these similarities seem to be purely material in nature with a completely different theological background (Fischer, 1996).

Furthermore, it’s unclear whether or not the flood account in Genesis 8-9 was intended to be about the entire earth. The word used for “the earth” in genesis 8 is “erets” which almost universally refers to some portion of dry land and it is often uncertain what land it is referring to. At times it clearly refers to a nation (Gen 2:11), or a plot of land (Gen 23:15). But, it is often claimed, erets mostly refers to the whole sum of dry land, particularly when it says “to the ends of erets”. This is far from certain, it is perfectly consistent, if not probable that because erets was commonly understood as dry land that the phrase “ends of the erets” really means a shore line or perhaps a geo-political boundary between nation states (Holding, ).

While there is very little to no evidence of a global flood happening any time in recent history, a local flood is much more plausible. Geological evidence suggest that the Black Sea flooded many thousands of square miles, eventually covering an area the size of Florida (Gierlowski, 1999).

What about Adam and Eve?

In the account of Adam and Eve in Genesis 2 it’s hard to deny that historical figures are being discussed here, however, it is unclear whether these historical figures are two people or a group of people. In any case it is also clear that there is much figurative language surrounding these two characters. For instance, the imagery of God breathing life into Adam’s nostrils or creating Eve out of Adams rib are awkward accounts if interpreted as a literal historical account but very elegant poetic descriptions of man’s origins. Thus I don’t think the Christian is committed to the view that God literally created man from the dust of the earth any more than they are committed to believing that serpents literally eat dirt. In addition there is a heavy amount of symbolism in regards to the garden of Eden. For one thing, there appears to be no precise geographical location that corresponds to the description given in Genesis and nowhere in scripture is Eden sought out or treated as a physical place. The description of rivers flowing out of Eden could also be symbolic of God’s presence and blessings (e.g. Ps 46:4, Rev 22:1).

This use of figurative language and symbolism makes me doubt that this is a literal description of what happened to the characters of Adam and Eve. Rather it seems that this is, again, a theological description of man’s origins and purpose. Still difficulty persists between modern evolutionary anthropology and the story of Adam and Eve. If Adam and Eve really were the first humans then the consensus among scientists today that our species began with a population of several thousand individuals 6-8 thousand years ago cannot be correct. Many models have been proposed to resolve this dilemma. For instance, Denis Alexander proposes that Adam and Eve weren’t really the first homo-sapiens after all but were the first “homo-divinus”. In other words, they were the first humans to enter into a covenant relationship with God. Still others theorize that Adam and Eve are only representatives of the first group of humans (Alexander, 2008). Because the discussion on this topic is highly complex I will simply say that the Christian need not be committed to a strictly literal interpretation of Genesis 2 and can instead be open to a wide range of interpretations, many of which are consistent with modern evolutionary theory.

Objections answered;

Isn’t it possible that Genesis influenced other ANE accounts and not the other way around?

Yes it’s possible, but unlikely. For one thing it seems improbable that Israel had that kind of influence in middle eastern culture. Furthermore, as Branson points out, “The theological sophistication of the Genesis account that weaves together human culpability, divine justice executed by one God, and covenantal promise argues for a development later than its ANE counterparts.”(2009).

What about the Biblical idea that there was no death before the fall, how is evolution consistent with this teaching?

It’s not, but then again it’s not much of a biblical idea, Genesis never claims this. What Genesis does claim hints at the idea that Adam and Eve were not immortal before the fall. For instance the creation of the tree of life and the tree of knowledge, if Adam and Eve already had eternal life why did God create a tree for the purpose of giving mankind eternal life? Aha one might immediately object, what about God’s statement that those who eat of the tree of knowledge will surely die? Well given the context it seems unlikely this verse means physical death. Holding states, “The account in Genesis goes on to depict Adam and Eve as losing fellowship with God. To the Hebrew mind, loss of fellowship with God is a fate worse than death, for it was the loss of fellowship with the prime source of peace. Thus the word "death" --- representing the most fearsome and irreversible fate in this life --- was chosen to figuratively describe this loss of fellowship with God.” Indeed this theme is quite evident throughout scripture. Spiritual death is thought of as separate and worse than physical death.

Phase 2:

Theological Concerns:

Does evolution allow for the doctrine of the fall?

Yes, at least to a certain extent, even taking the most extreme view that Adam and Eve are purely figurative characters representing the first humans struggle against sin it seems obvious that there was a first sin committed by a human and thus the fall would have happened at that point. However, the opposite extreme of believing that physical death and pain only entered the world after the fall is not allowed by modern evolutionary theory. But as I explained above, there is little Biblical evidence for such a view.

How could God guide a random and purposeless process?

Contrary to the affirmations of Dawkins evolution is not inherently a random process. There is nothing about the scientific theory itself which requires it to be unguided or without a desired end. Ernst Mayr, a prominent biologist states, “When it is said that mutation or variation is random, the statement simply means that there is  no correlation between the production of new genotypes and the adaptational needs of an organism in a given environment. (Plantinga p. 28)” In other words there is no physical mechanism which determines what mutations and changes will occur in a species. Thus it is perfectly consistent to suppose that there was divine causation for such events.

Does evolution entail a more deistic sort of God not involved in His creation?

To a limited extent yes it does, but only when it comes to biological creation. Even here, however, one could believe that God directly acted in the evolutionary process to bring about various mutations and species. Other than that, on theistic evolution the miracles described in the Old Testament could still very well be historical events, as well as the life, death and resurrection of Jesus.

Does evolution entail that mankind is nothing more than an enlightened primate?

No, evolution makes no claim about the true nature of mankind as an ontological entity. Evolution only claims that man is an enlightened primate, its still possible, on evolution, to suppose that man is created in the image of God. Lets take John Stott’s view, that man gained a soul when he was able to respond to God and enter into covenant with Him. This certainly doesn’t include everything a soul entails, but it is sufficient to show that one’s Neanderthals and other hominids gained the ability to reason, use language and respond to God’s revelation they became made in the image of God. Or perhaps God acted more directly and chose homo-sapiens in particular to be made in the image of God and breathed souls into them. In any case I hardly see how this creates a problem on a theological level, our biological origins hardly define or constrain our ontological identity.

Does such a non-literal reading of Genesis violate inerrancy?

No, because if the framework for understanding Genesis I am proposing is correct then Genesis 1-2 doesn’t claim that the universe was created in 6 days, nor does it claim that there was a literal firmament or dome that separated what were viewed as the waters of the heavens and the waters of the Earth. These are merely literary devices to make far more important theological points about who God is, who we are and how God relates to us. Now someone could of course object that such an allegorical interpretation doesn’t make sense, but then that’s not an argument that this interpretation and others like violate inerrancy but merely that they don’t make sense out of what the text is really claiming. So there seems to be a confusion here between inerrant interpretations of scripture, which don’t exist, and inerrant claims of scripture itself. Note also the key word here; claims. I think its misleading to suggest that inerrancy teaches that it is the words of scripture that are inerrant, such a view seems to undermine interpretation altogether by treating context as irrelevant to a texts meaning. Rather to say that the Bible is inerrant is to suggest that everything it claims is true and surely this is compatible with an allegorical reading of Genesis 1-11.

Does evolution imply that God used death to create? How could God use such an evil tool to create life?

Why is physical death evil? It is never described as such in the Bible. Certainly various kinds of death, such as murder and suicide are evil according to the Biblical account, but who would consider animals hunting for food murder? Furthermore, evolution in a different light illustrates many themes of Christian thought, that of life coming from death and new life at that.











References;

Alexander D. (2008). Creation or Evolution: Do We Have to Choose? Oxford, UK: Monarch Books.

Branson, R. (2009). Shifting paradigms for interpreting Genesis 1-11. Wesleyan Theological Journal, 44(1), 141-156

Fischer D. (1996). Genesis Flood. Retrieved from; http://www2.asa3.org/archive/asa/199604/0281.html

Holding, J.P. (2009). Are There Two Creation Accounts? Retrieved from; http://www.tektonics.org/jedp/creationtwo.html

Holding, J. P. (2009). Does the Bible Teach the Earth is Flat? Retrieved from; http://www.tektonics.org/af/earthshape.html

Hyers, C (1984). The Narrative Form of Genesis 1: Cosmogonic, Yes; Scientific, No. Journal of the American Scientific Affiliation, 36.4. Retrieved from http://faculty.gordon.edu/hu/bi/ted_hildebrandt/otesources/01-genesis/text/articles-books/hyers_gen1_jasa.pdf

Gierlowski-Kordesch, E. (1999). Noah's flood: The new scientific discoveries about the event that changed history. Biblical Archaeology Review, 25(6), 56-59. Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com/docview/214909819?accountid=7374

Plantinga A. (2011). Where The Conflict Really Lies: Science, Religion, and Naturalism. New York, NY: Oxford University Press, Inc.

Richards R.E., O’brian B.J. (2012). Misreading Scripture With Western Eyes: Removing Cultural Blinders to Better Understand the Bible. Downers Grove, IL: Inter Varsity Press.


Smith, G.V. Structure and Purpose In Genesis 1-11. Retrieved from http://www.etsjets.org/files/JETS-PDFs/20/20-4/20-4-pp307-319_JETS.pdf


Friday, June 21, 2013

Defending a dynamic view of Inspiration (sort of);

http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/don_stewart/stewart.cfm?id=1248

I’m always surprised at how often I disagree with sites like this. Of course, most of what they say I agree with, but when it comes to critiquing various views deemed “liberal” or “heretical” contributing authors often fall short in many of their criticisms. That being said I could be misunderstanding them, so keep in mind that I am trying to be as charitable as possible in this rebuttle… of their rebuttle.

Here is blueletter’s definition of the dynamic view of inspiration;

“God initially divinely inspired the writers of Scripture but left them to use their own words and expressions in describing the truth that He revealed to them. Divine inspiration only occurred at that initial moment when God communicated to the authors of Scripture.” 

On a dynamic view how do we know which part to believe?

"If divine inspiration only occurred at the moment of initial contact between God and the writer, and dealt with their thoughts and not their words, then how can we be certain they chose the right words? How are we able to discern between the writer's own fallible opinions and God's thoughts? Why should we have confidence in the Bible if the forty plus authors were left to their own particular way of stating God's truth as it had initially been revealed to them? Why should we assume their final product was always correct on every matter? Ultimately we cannot if we hold this viewpoint.”

The argument;

It seems that the author is pointing to a number of difficulties here. 1) if God only gave the authors of the Bible ideas to put in their own words and did not facilitate their expression of such ideas then there is no guarantee that the authors accurately expressed them the way God intended. 2) If the Bible only contains divine ideas how do we determine which ideas are human and which are divine? Furthermore it also seems possible that there are human ideas that are used to support divine ideas in which case it would also be impossible to determine which ideas are human and which are divine.


Critique;


I want to make it known from the outset that I am not necessarily defending a strictly dynamic view of Inspiration. My aim is to show that the dichotomy between verbal plenary and dynamic views of inspiration is invalid. That being said I believe the view I present is most consistent with a dynamic view of inspiration.


Perhaps the central problem with these claims is that they ignore the meticulous and reliable analysis involved in translation along with linguistic and contextual studies of the Biblical text. While there is much debate about what the Bible teaches one can fairly say that the core themes have been nailed out of the Biblical text along with mountains of details in the claims and teachings of the Bible. This is my central claim; The Bible should not be viewed as a set of ideas about God and man, but a set of claims. Given this any debate about which claims are of human or divine origin become mute. One can avoid the problem altogether by simply pointing out that we should affirm everything the Bible affirms to be true. But here’s the interesting part, when viewed as a set of claims the crucial question involved in Biblical analysis is what the text is claiming in a certain passage or verse? This preserves a central tenant in interpretation, to keep original intent in view. When asking what claims a text is making it is necessary to see what claims the author is making. How is their culture influencing them? What genre of literature is this text? What is the setting of the text?


Some clarifications;


Some might say that my view isn’t like the dynamic view at all in that it doesn’t allow one to believe the Bible err’s in its historical claims. Actually I think it does. This is because in our culture we view texts as a set of propositions, where each sentence that is not a question expresses a simple direct claim about its subject. This is not necessarily the case in other cultures however, particularly those that can be called a “high context” culture where the central claims are often more implicit than they are explicit. This means that informal literary structures such as figures of speech or hyperbole play a larger role in the Bible than they do in modern english texts. Whats more there are quite a few other cultural assumptions that we take for granted in interpreting the Bible. For example; we like to view time as a measurable chronological abstract resource, we expect all stories to follow a strict timeline of events. In the Biblical world this isn’t the case, before the advent of watches and clocks, time was viewed as a fluid constant of reality. Chronology was not stressed as much as it is in Western culture today. Often ancient authors used the order of events to express deeper morals and teachings of the story. So this fact alone allows for the interpretation that the 4 gospels do technically err in their chronology of various events if we view the text from a 21st century perspective, but from the authors perspective, their emphasis is on what Jesus was like, what He was trying to accomplish and how He saw the world. Thus they did not care about the exact order of events in at least some cases, given this can we really say they claimed a chronological order of events if that was not their intention?



The Entire Process is Divinely Inspired.


"The process of divine inspiration did not end with the initial contact between God and the authors of Scripture. It continued throughout their composition of the work until the biblical book was finished.”


Eh I have to call foul on this one, I can’t think of a version of this argument that isn’t circular in its reasoning. This is especially true since the author gives no biblical or non-biblical arguments to support this assertion. In addition I see no inconsistency between my view and the assertion that inspiration was a process. It seems perfectly consistent to propose that the authors of the Bible were inspired by the Holy Spirit what claims to make in the text while they were writing it. One does not have to view inspiration as strictly involving the wording of the text in order to view it as a process.


The View Confuses Inspiration with Illumination


"This view also confuses inspiration and illumination. The emphasis on Scripture is on divinely inspired words, not divinely inspired writers. It is not the process, but rather the end product that is stressed. It is all Scripture that is God-breathed, not all writers.”


Critique;


Simple enough the writers are not inspired the words are. There is no indication from scripture that the apostles or prophets of old were “upgraded” so to speak in order to adequately express divine ideas. That being said, it would seem that if inspiration did reside in the author initially then that would solve the problem of guaranteeing accurate transmission of divine ideas to the text as God would obviously be capable of enlightening men in a way sufficient to record His revelation in the way He intended.


In addition, on my view this critique doesn’t even apply as its the claims of scripture that are inspired and not the people nor the words specifically.


Does 2 Timothy 3:16-17 teach a strictly Plenary Verbal view of inspiration?


I don’t think so. I can’t think of any reason why the concept of all scripture being theopneustos (God Breathed) requires one to believe that every single word is divinely inspired or literally breathed out by God. Such a view seems to border a mechanical dictation view. It seems a better view of “God breathed” is simply to say that all of scripture came from God, or God is the ultimate source of all scripture.


Questions about Plenary Verbal Inspiration;


If as blueletterbible claims here is true, that its the wording that is inspired and not simply the words, then how is it possible that two entirely different translation such as the NLV and the NASB both be inspired if they both contain different wordings of the text? Is one more inspired than the other? I understand that those of a verbal plenary view of inspiration believe that only the original text is truly word for word from God but even so its still the case that translations such as NASB are more true to the original text (being more of a word for word translation) than those like the Message or the NLT.


One article writes; "So if you REALLY want to know God's Word, you have to learn and study it in the original languages. Only a few pastors in the world teach Bible in the original languages to their congregations, but such pastors DO exist. So you can use 1Jn1:9, ask Father in Son's name to direct you to the pastor He wants for you. Never Never Never underestimate God's Power. Your IQ is of no importance, high or low. JUST BE WILLING TO LEARN.” This seems highly problematic to me. What is the point of affirming that the Bible is God’s word if the translations we have can never be truly and completely the word of God? If this is truly the view of those who defend V.P.T. then why do we hear from them at the same time that views like that of Karl Barth are heretical or at the very least false teaching?


If it really doesn’t matter what the exact wording is when it comes to different versions of the Bible then what is the point of emphasizing to the nth degree that God desired every word to be the way it was in the original text? Furthermore at that point what is the difference between saying so long as the various wordings maintain the correct ideas various translations are equally inspired and saying that only the concepts of the Bible are inspired and not the exact words?

Ultimately I just see no reason to suppose the every single word of the Bible is exactly the way God wanted it. Taken to its logical conclusion such a view just makes no sense, it can’t be every exact word otherwise we should only be using a single authoritative version of the Bible as Mormons and KJV only advocates do. It makes much more sense simply to affirm that inspiration and inerrancy only require that we believe that what the Bible claims is true.


Interesting articles;


http://www.satsonline.org/userfiles/Smith_GrammaticalExpositionOf2Tim3.16-17.pdf 

http://www.tektonics.org/whatis/whatinspire.html 

http://www.dbts.edu/journals/2006/Decker.pdf 

Wednesday, June 12, 2013

Dear Lord please don’t let pastors preach on evolution… ever.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yPFi8k5IMK0

Sproul;

1) What are the main arguments for evolution? Evolution from a common ancestor best explains the fossil record. It explains why we don’t see humans buried in the same rock layers as a T-Rex, it explains why we see no vertebrate creatures before the Cambrian period and we do have vertebrate creatures afterwards. Evolution from a common ancestor best explains genetic similarities between species. It explains how two chromosomes from an ape are present as a fused pair in the human genome. Those just give two examples.

2) No Sproul, evolution has nothing to do with the origin of life. However life originated it is does not affect the truth or falsity of evolution, or descent with modification. Neither does evolution have anything to do with the Big Bang, with the exception that the Earth and the universe is old.

3) Micro and Macro-evolution is not a useful distinction in evolutionary theory. Often times there is more genetic variation within species than there is between species. This is because species are defined as any distinct group of creatures that can reproduce within itself. A different species develops then, when a group of creatures can no longer reproduce with another group.

4) No the question of life’s origins is not merely a question of history. If you are going to go that route you have to throw out the teleological argument, because it is based on theoretical physics which theorizes about how the universe began and developed over time and not just how it behaves today. Obviously history involves a variety of disciplines, as historians rely on scientific dating methods to figure out when an artifact is from. They use scholarly works from sociology and forensic methods from biology to analyze remains and ancient cultures.

Seriously Sproul don’t dip your fingers in so many pies. You haven’t done your homework here.

Hodges;

1) you need to read more works in the philosophy of science. Although many scientists believe that the universe is a closed system, theories such as evolution do not require such an assumption. Evolution does not imply naturalism any more than the theory of gravity or electricity does. To say that Evolution implies naturalism is like saying the Big Bang implies theism. Neither claim is true even though many people make them.

2) You raise an interesting point, how does God interact with a world dominated by natural processes? If weather patterns are responsible for tornadoes and various forces like gravity are responsible for the formation of galaxies then what is there left for God to do? The answer; everything. How? Because for one thing it is possible for something to have multiple explanations. For instance, take baking a cake. You can explain a baked cake by its dimensions, how it was cooked and prepared, the physics of how heat affects yeast etc. but you can also explain it through efficient causes such as someone wanted to bake a cake for their son’s birthday. In the same way we can ask for what reasons do galaxies form? Why do we feel pain? Or what causes the laws of physics to be the way they are? What prevents the universe from ceasing to exist? I could go on but I think I’ve made my point. God does not have to be directly involved in natural processes to be in control of all of nature in an intimate way, much like a mechanic does not have to manually run every part of a car to be considered in love with his car.

Ravi;

1)  I agree with you on the bias of liberalism, but scientists reject ID for very good reasons. Take irreducible complexity for instance, as I’ve mentioned before it argues that for a system like the Bacterial Flagellum to function at all, all of its parts must be present. But this simply isn’t true, by taking a series of parts away it becomes a syringe to sting and poison enemies. Similarly contrary to Behe’s claims you do not need to have all the parts of a mouse trap for it to function as a mouse trap, you can have a 4 part, 3 part even 2 part mouse trap and it will still function. The claims of ID as well as the more extreme 6 day creationism are vacuous, the science simply isn’t there to back it up.

What is an argument from ignorance?

Traditionally arguments from ignorance go something like this; there is no reason to suppose that P is false, therefore P must be true, or vice versa; whatever has not been proven true must be false. Arguments from ignorance are alleged to be used in many areas of natural theology. One classic example would be a common argument used by Christian theists that evolution can’t explain how life developed therefore God must have created life.

My problem is this, arguments from ignorance are simply easy to avoid. All the theist has to do to avoid using this argument is to change the nature of the claim and say that God is a better explanation of how life developed than evolution, thus we should believe God is the explanation over evolution. There certainly are other difficulties with this argument, but an argument from ignorance is not one of them.

“But…” the skeptic might retort, “how then do we explain why using aliens to explain U.F.O.’s is irrational?” A fair question to be sure. The answer may sound a bit odd at first, abandon the claim that there is no evidence that aliens exist. The fact is that aliens as an explanation does have explanatory power and as such the claim that aliens exist has evidence for it. However, the problem here is that there are multiple plausible explanations, U.F.O.’s could be explained by astroids, human developed experimental aircraft, or some unidentified natural phenomenon such as ball lightning. Because each of the explanations explain the same range of events and phenomena it is impossible, without further analysis, to argue that one explanation should be preferred over another.

The irony is that if we are to take the traditional view of “arguments from ignorance” which is so often used by skeptics and atheists, then we come to the conclusion that the atheist argument that because there is no evidence for God’s existence it is improbable that God exists commits this fallacy. As Carl Sagan noted, “absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.” However, I don’t think the argument commits this fallacy. This is because atheists who use this argument are really arguing that if God existed we would expect to see more evidence of His existence. Thus the argument in its most effective form can be put in a simple syllogism;

1. If God exists there must be  powerful physical or philosophical evidence of His existence.
2. There is no powerful physical or philosophical evidence of His existence.
3. Therefore God does not exist.


Monday, June 10, 2013

Does the Bible teach anti-intellectualism?

Thesis; The Bible (or at least parts of it) supports anti-intellectualism to some degree or another. Anti-intellectualism can be defined broadly as any hostile attitude towards learning, reason and open-mindedness and/or any attitude that has a tendency to undermine said processes/mental states.

Verses put forward in support of thesis;

1 Corianthians 1:18-20&27; 2:5
John 20:29
Romans 14:23
Hebrews 11:1
Psalms 14:1
Proverbs 3:5-6

This is a semi-comprehensive list that has been used and could be used in support of the claim that to believe the Bible teaches truth, one is committed to “check his brain at the door” or only be permitted to use reason to a limited extent.

Is faith irrational according to the Bible?

Hebrews 11:1 (ESV)

"Now faith is the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen.”

Before we begin we need to establish a few things about faith and how the authors of the New Testament are defining it. The word used for faith here and everywhere else in the N.T. is “pistis” which means “persuasion, credence, confidence in, trust, loyalty etc… (1)” this is a far cry from the modern definition of believing in something despite evidence to the contrary. Indeed the terms grace and faith (pistis) were often used in the ancient world to describe client-patron relationships, where the patron would give underserved favor (grace) to the client and the client would reciprocate by being loyal to and trusting (faith) the patron (2).

Given this background we can analyze Hebrews 11:1 by replacing faith with loyalty; "Now loyalty is the the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen." So does this verse mean that our loyalty to God is our assurance and proof of God's existence and our hope for eternal life? Obviously not, the rest of the chapter records many prophets and leaders of the Old Testament who saw God and experience His power. So what does this verse mean by assurance and things unseen? Well the word for assurance used here is, "hupostasis" which as a noun refers to the concrete essence or abstract assurance (Strongs Greek/Hebrew Definitions, NT:5287). In addition the word hope, "elpizo" literally mean to expect so the first part of this verse can be understood as; our loyalty and trust in God is the essence of our expectations of God's continuing favor towards us. The second phrase, the evidence of things not seen, also makes sense given a client patron relationship where loyalty is a result or consequence of the grace given by the patron. This means that "things not seen" is better understood as the continual favor of God as our patron.

Having established that faith can be easily and comfortably defined as trust in the context of Hebrews 11:1 the question arises, is this trust rational or irrational?

Proverbs 3:5-6

"Trust in the Lord with all your heart and lean not on your own understanding;
 in all your ways submit to him,  and he will make your paths straight.”

If we are to trust in God and not our understanding does this not mean that we should only believe that which God has told us to be true and ignore our own reasonings?

Well no, first note we are dealing with proverbial literature here. Therefore, this passage should be read in the same way we read, “practice makes perfect”. It obviously isn’t true that mere practice of an activity will make you perfect at it, but it is true that practice is a necessary condition of such a goal. Similarly it isn’t true that we should ignore the fact that 2+2=4 because God hasn’t explicitly revealed it to us but trusting God when it comes to how to live our lives, particularly when it His wisdom comes in conflict with our own is a necessary condition of being a servant of God. Even then, such conflicts in ideas between us and God do not require us to just stop thinking and accept what God says, certainly it is within the realm of trust to seek answers as to where we went wrong and/or if we are misunderstanding God’s command (3).

But what about John 20:29?

"Then Jesus told him, “Because you have seen me, you have believed;blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.”’

So Jesus is speaking to Thomas here, who asked Jesus to show the holes in his hands and allow Thomas to feel them to know that they were real. Is Jesus, then, saying that those who desire evidence are less blessed than those who don’t? A few considerations have led me to question that interpretation.

For one thing, Thomas clearly had seen, observed and listened to quite a bit of evidence of the truth of Jesus’s claims before this. He had the testimony of 11 men whom he trusted dearly, he had seen Jesus perform many miracles, he even saw Jesus raise Lazarus from the dead. So perhaps Thomas was not being accused here of seeking evidence, but seeking excessive evidence.

In addition, as Jesus points out, converts of the future won’t have as much evidence as Thomas did. However, I would argue that they would have sufficient evidence given that they could confirm with witnesses of Jesus resurrection, what the apostles were claiming and they could even see the miracles of the apostles. Even further down the road philosophical arguments for God’s existence and the truth of Christianity would be developed, including new arguments for the resurrection. Thomas’s attitude, however, seems to be that if he can’t see or touch something, he can’t believe it to be true, leading him to treat Jesus like a puppy, performing tricks on command.

Lastly there is the word blessed. In the greek it is Makarios which has no english equivalent. The most accurate phrase that could be given to it, would perhaps be “a state of honor or contentment.” In this case, it seems Jesus is saying that those who don’t demand more evidence than is sufficient are more honorable than those like Thomas (4, also see Misreading Scripture With  Western Eyes, p. 75).

Is all men’s wisdom and knowledge irrational according to the Bible?

1 Corinthians 1:18-20 (NIV)

"For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God. For it is written: “I will destroy the wisdom of the wise the intelligence of the intelligent I will frustrate.” Where is the wise person? Where is the teacher of the law? Where is the philosopher of this age? Has not God made foolish the wisdom of the world?”

At first glance this passage appears to be saying that 1 Christianity is irrational to a secular mind and 2 God is hostile to all the knowledge and wisdom humanity has attained. This interpretation, being heavily influenced by modern sentiments of secular society and human intelligence Is not representative of the topic being discussed in this passage. In 1 Corinthians 1 Paul is addressing a dissention of loyalty among his brothers and sisters in Christ between him and Apollos. This was a tradition of men in Corinth and elsewhere to declare exclusive loyalty to a single leader. Hence Paul paraphrases Isaiah 29:14 which speaks of God destroying such foolish traditions and pseudo-wisdom of men. Again given that it is a paraphrase of poetic/proverbial literature this can't be taken absolutely, God is not intending to destroy all of our scientific knowledge and make us like apes (5).

In regards to 1 additionally the concept of wisdom and foolishness has to do with moral and practical issues more than philosophy and head knowledge. Given this, 1 Corinthians 1:18 seems to be saying to the same people who practice such silly traditions of men as declaring loyalty to a single man the idea that someone died for them on the cross is moronic and stupid. Verse 18 does not then say that according to man-made philosophies and logic the cross is necessarily irrational. Its not even clear the v 18 commits a believer to hold that all non-believers see the cross as stupid and silly as again, proverbial literature is never meant to be taken in absolutes, despite the fact that many Christians desire to do so.

All this being said, a retort might rightly be given that the Hebrew conception of wisdom did relate a great deal to knowledge in a theoretical sense (aka head knowledge) even though such theoretical knowledge certainly doesn’t seem to be the main focus of the term. Ecclesiastes 8:16-17 is a good example of this sense in that it describes factual knowledge as wisdom, even the knowledge that one cannot know something. But as Jacobus Gericke points out the majority of the themes present in the Hebrew conception of wisdom revolve around practical or moral knowledge (6).

1 Corinthians 1:27

"but God has chosen the foolish things of the world to shame the wise, and God has chosen the weak things of the world to shame the things which are strong"

Much of what has been discussed above applies to this verse as well. What is implicit here is who Paul is speaking about, those who put traditions of men before the commands of God. Another point to make here is that Paul would not have the ideas of rhetoric or reasoning in mind when writing this verse. Most of Paul's writing is rhetoric and argumentation for various positions. Rather Paul is speaking about how people view things as foolish errantly or hastily. For example, the common assumption at the time that a divine man would never die such a shameful death on the cross. This assumption hardly seems obvious but is based on the further assumption that a divine being in the flesh would prioritize honor and not mercy. Thus even wisdom as factual knowledge often speaks of the traditions and assumptions of men and not their ability to use reason to come to logical conclusions or conclusions based on sound reasoning.

1 Corinthians 2:5

"so that your faith might not rest on human wisdom, but on God’s power.” (NIV)

This verse combines what we’ve discussed about faith and wisdom and thus we can apply what’s been said about those two concepts here by paraphrasing thusly; “so that your loyalty might not rest on human traditions, ideas and ways of living but on God’s power.” It is also important to add some context to this verse by quoting the verse before it; “My message and my preaching were not with wise and persuasive words but with a demonstration of the Spirit’s power.” This by itself casts doubt on any anti-rational interpretation as Paul was clearly interested in proving to his audience that what He taught was true.

Nevertheless, what does Paul mean when he says that our faith might not rest on human wisdom but God’s power? Given the popular rhetoric of the day it is plausible to suppose that Paul is speaking of wisdom here in the sense of merely what seems appealing or persuasive to men such as an impressive or inspirational speech. Thus Paul is telling his followers to not put their loyalty in men but in God as well as to not be persuaded by Paul's words but by the acts of God performed through Paul.

Conclusion; while this is by no means a complete scholarly exposition of these verses nor Biblical and ANE conceptions of wisdom and faith, it is clear from what has been discussed above that there is little evidence to support the idea that the Bible is anti-rational.

1. http://www.truthortradition.com/modules.php?file=article&name=News&sid=692
2. http://tektonics.org/whatis/whatfaith.html
3. http://skipmoen.com/tag/proverbs-35-6/
4. http://www.tektonics.org/gk/john2029.html
5.  http://www.tektonics.org/af/follywise.html
6. http://www.academia.edu/1489237/The_concept_of_Wisdom_in_the_Hebrew_Bible_-_a_philosophical_clarification